Tuesday, July 16, 2002 07:01 PM
Here is the scenario:
EJB A invokes a jca resource as part of a transaction.
The jca resource then invokes stateless EJB B which updates a database using a transactional DataSource
Will the DataSource be enlisted as part of the transaction context of EJB A? If EJB A sets the transaction for rollback-only will the DataSource update be rolled back?