Mathematician: Sometimes, when we don’t use language carefully enough, we can get ourselves into philosophical trouble. For example, consider the following statement:
If a barber shaves all those men (and only those men) who do not shave themselves, does he shave himself?
If the barber shaves himself, then he is shaving a man who shaves himself, which is something that (by definition) he does not do. On the other hand, if the barber does not shave himself, then there is a man who doesn’t shave himself that the barber doesn’t shave, which again contradicts our definition of the barber.
So what is the answer? Well, the question has no answer, because the definition we use for our barber contains within it a logical contradiction. What’s more, it is impossible for such a barber to actually exist in the real world, since the razor burn associated with simultaneously shaving yourself and not shaving yourself is too much for any single person to withstand.
Now, let’s return to the original question:
What would happen if an unstoppable force met with an unmovable, impenetrable object?
Well, let’s suppose that we define an “unstoppable” force to be one that can move absolutely any matter. Furthermore, let’s define an “unmovable” object to be one that cannot be moved by any force. In that case, this question is unanswerable, because like the barber paradox above, it relies on contradictory information. By definition our force can move anything, but then, also by definition, there is an object that the force cannot move. This is a bit like saying “suppose X is true, and not X is true. Then is X true?”. Here X is the idea that the force can move anything, and not X is the idea that there is at least one object that cannot be moved by the force (which in this case is our unmovable object). Hence, this question has no answer because it relies on assumptions which contradict each other.