Why did ancient Greece have a city-state system, but the eastern countries have long had absolute monarchies? Aristotle believed that absolute monarchy is often seen among barbarians, and is very close to same tyrant or tyranny. Because the temperament of the barbarian peoples is inherently more national and more servile than that of the Greeks, and the barbarians of Asia are more servile than the barbarians of Europe, so they are willing to accept dictatorship and not rebel.
The statement 'The difference between civilized and barbarian is due to differences in culture and social organization' can weaken Aristotle's interpretation if any of the following statements are true.