For those who enjoy NT Greek, a question.
The text of the beautiful verse 5:15 runs:
VAllV ouvc w`j to. para,ptwma( ou[twj kai. to. ca,risma\ eiv ga.r tw/| tou/ e`no.j paraptw,mati oi` polloi. avpe,qanon( pollw/| ma/llon h` ca,rij tou/ qeou/ kai. h` dwrea. evn ca,riti th/| tou/ e`no.j avnqrw,pou VIhsou/ Cristou/ eivj tou.j pollou.j evperi,sseusenÅ
The part I want to quiz you on: h` dwrea. evn ca,riti th/| tou/ e`no.j k)t)l)
Now why is it so structured, I wonder? What did Paul gain by placing the article after the evn ca,riti? Perhaps evn ca,riti is semitic style (where dwrea th/j ca,ritoj would have been tidier?), and Paul then had to put the definite article somewhere, so bunged it after this clause?
Perhaps I am missing something really obvious, so any thoughts are appreciated.
Download Greek fonts used on this page here