From: Steven D. Baxley (firstname.lastname@example.org)
Date: Sun Mar 10 2002 - 13:57:37 EST
Can anyone tell me why in Greek dictionaries, verbs seem to be listed =
their 1st person singular form, rather than their infinitive forms? For
example, if I look at Vine's or Strong's for the word "baptein", I find =
listed as "bapto" rather than "baptein". Is this a standard convention =
dealing with Greek verbs, or am I mistaking the infinitive form? Or am =
making some other kind of error in understanding?
For example, if I speak of the Greek word "bapto" meaning "to dip". =
I say a or b?
a] "The Greek word "bapto" means "to dip".
b] "The Greek word "baptein" means "to dip."
Thank you in advance for your replies.
Steven D. Baxley
Hradec Kralove, Czech Republic
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