Date: Sun Jun 08 1997 - 06:45:06 EDT
Hello to all.
I had a rather deep discussion recently with respect to the meaning of the
word "God." A center of focus was why the LXX translators would translate
the Hebrew ELOHIM as AGGELOUS, or "angels" in Psalms 8:5 (quoted in Heb 2:7).
My friend's assertion was that the LXX translators here made a scribal error.
My contention was that the LXX translators here translated what they
understood the meaning of the word to be in this context as opposed to a
slavish translation of the Hebrew.
Is there a generally accepted scholarly answer to the question? It seems to
me that we need to be careful to not quickly reject the LXX when it disagrees
with what we as modern English readers think it should be or not be.
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