From: Bill Ross (email@example.com)
Date: Tue Mar 21 2000 - 21:08:59 EST
A bit of evidence that would sway me is if someone could translate the
conversation between Jesus and Peter in Aramaic with two verbs that tracked
what some claim for these two Greek verbs. I do believe that Jesus spoke to
his disciples (even after the resurrection) in Aramaic. Could he have made
that same distinction. Until that is done I suspect that if there is a
difference of emphasis intended, it is from the writer and not the speaker.
Are you saying you think Jesus spoke the same words each time, but John
recorded them as different for his own emphasis?
I find that unlikely.
Isn't it entirely possible, assuming that Jesus did speak in Aramaic, that
Jesus spoke two very different words for which John's word choice was less
obviously distinguished to our dull ears?
I am only saying that the difference of the words in Koine argue for
different words used by Jesus in Aramaic, and argue for significance both
for Jesus' choice and for John's. I personally see no logical argument here
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