Date: Wed Mar 06 2002 - 21:18:32 EST
In a message dated 3/6/02 7:30:59 PM, email@example.com writes:
>Luke 10: 24 says in part …POLLOI PROFHTAI KAI BASILEIS HQELHSAN IDEIN hA
>hUMEIS BLEPETE, KAI OUK EIDON, KAI AKOUSAI hA AKOUETE, KAI OUK HKOUSAN
>Why is IDEIN a present form and AKOUSAI an aorist. They seem to be
>completely parallel. Is this because IDEIN, though present in form,
>functions as an aorist?
first of all IDEIN is what is called a 2nd aorist. Some lexicons list it with
hORAW, others list it alone an an aorist. So both verbs are aorist which
seems appropriate in this passage.
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